Problem 1633 (difficulty: 7/10)

Show that if \(\displaystyle f\in O(\CC)\), \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \left|f\left(\frac 1n\right)\right|<\frac{1}{2^n}\) then \(\displaystyle f\equiv 0\). Can one do better?

Give me another random problem!

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Request for a concrete problem:I want problem no.

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