Problem 1482 (difficulty: 4/10)

True or false? If \(\displaystyle f_1\ge f_2\ge \dots\) are non-negative and Lebesgue-measurable then

\(\displaystyle \lim \int f_n \,\mathrm{d}\lambda = \int (\lim f_n) \,\mathrm{d}\lambda? \)

Give me another random problem!