Problem 1471 (difficulty: 2/10)

True or false? If \(\displaystyle f:[a,b]\to\R\) is Riemann-integrable, then it is Borel-measurable?

Give me another random problem!

Subject, section:
Requested difficulty:
Request for a concrete problem:I want problem no.

Supported by the Higher Education Restructuring Fund allocated to ELTE by the Hungarian Government